Doesn't the bible calling it's god "father" disprove it's divine inspiration.?

It's really quite simple. If the xtian god existed before time and space--then he could not have been composed of matter. It takes matter--specifically genetalia as directed by the y chromosome to be male--to be a father--it is quite impossible for the diety of the abrahamics to be male--to be a father. Therefore to call it that would be incorrect--if one portion of the bible is incorrect in this important aspect--then the whole book is suspect. Isn't it more likely that the whole concept was the brainchild of middle eastern very very very patriarchal men trying to keep and consolidate power and protect their bloodlines by making women property and second cl citizens?